Khatchig Mouradian
- For journalists trying
their utmost to be
objective and fair, sometimes
the boundaries between objectivity
and moral
equivalence seem to be unclear. In
their attempt to presenting “both
sides” of
the story, some journalists end up
taking a middle “golden” position.
The issue of the systematic
massacres and deportations of the
Armenians in
the Ottoman Empire in 1915 is a
typical example. A well-documented
historical fact, it is often
presented in the format of “Turks
say” and
“Armenians say”. What are you
thoughts on this issue?
Paul Boghossian - It is right
to present “both sides” of a dispute
when the evidence available to
everyone doesn’t decisively settle
the matter one way or the other.
Thus, it is right to present both
sides of the dispute about whether
the Big Bang is a correct model of
the origins of the universe. It
would not be appropriate to present
both sides of the issue about
whether the earth is flat or whether
the Holocaust occurred or whether
smoking causes cancer, although in
each of these cases you can find
some people on each side of each of
those issues.
Many journalists, though, have lost
their grip on the notion of
objective knowledge. They think:
well, who is to decide whether an
issue has been settled decisively by
the evidence? Don’t I see a lot of
people on both sides of the issue of
1915? Doesn’t that indicate that the
matter isn’t decisively settled by
the available evidence?
That is a confused response. Just
because a lot of people treat a
proposition as undecided doesn’t
make it undecided. The only thing
that makes a proposition undecided
is the quality of the evidence. As
to who gets to decide on the quality
of the evidence, the answer is that
if it is a technical question that
you need special expertise to
assess, then it has to be an
appropriately trained expert who
gets to decide. But if it is the
sort of question that journalists
are in the business of assessing,
then they get to decide, after doing
the appropriate research.
The question about the Armenians is
probably a little bit of both, since
it does have some technical aspects.
The matter is made more complicated
by the confusion that surrounds the
word “genocide.” But if you put the
word to one side and ask simply: Was
there a centrally planned program to
eliminate the Armenians from eastern
Turkey in the waning years of the
Ottoman Empire? -- Anyone with the
slightest knowledge of the evidence
could only come to the conclusion
that there was.
K.M. - Some journalists
working in the west have told me
they often refrain from using the
term “genocide” when referring to
the Armenian massacres not because
they doubt that what happened to the
Armenians was genocide, but out of
concern that using the term might
hurt the feelings of many Turks.
What do you think about this
argument?
P.B. - Every time we say
something to someone we take into
account not only what we take to be
true but also the potential impact
on our audience.
But, first, there are limits
to the extent to which one should be
willing to moderate what one
says to spare someone's feelings.
And it seems to me that mass murder
and ethnic cleansing are two of
those limits. And, second, this
seems like a particularly odd thing
for a journalist to emphasize. One
would have thought that it is the
job of a journalist to openly speak
the sometimes unpleasant truth to
power.
K.M. - During one of your
interventions at the fourth Workshop
for Armenian-Turkish scholarship in
Salzburg, you argued that it is not
possible to say that the mass
extermination of the Armenians in
the Ottoman Empire in 1915 does not
count as “genocide” simply because
the term did not exist at the time
and was coined in the 1940s. Can you
illustrate your argument?
P.B. - Arguments of this sort
involve a basic confusion about the
relation between language and
reality. They assume that, in
general, a concept can apply to some
event only if, at the time that the
event occurred, there were people
around who were already prepared to
apply that concept to it.
Now, I don’t deny that there are
some concepts that are like that.
For example, I suppose that nothing
can count as a coronation, or an
election, unless someone is prepared
so to describe it. Of course, the
English word “coronation” need not
have existed at the time, but some
word or other expressing that
concept would need to have been
around. It is very hard to see how
some event could count as the
crowning of a king unless at least
some people are prepared so to
describe it. One can think of
several such examples.
However, only a few concepts and
facts are like that. For example, I
can truly say that 65 million years
ago there were dinosaurs on Earth
even though 65 million years ago
there was no one around who had the
concept “dinosaur”. Or, to take
another example, I can truly say
that in the very earliest stages of
the universe all the matter in it
was in a very hot gaseous form, even
though there was no one around who
had any of those ingredient notions.
In general, then, it is simply not
true that all concepts are such
that, they only apply to some event
if there happened to be people
around who, at the time of the
event, were willing to apply the
concept to it. Some concepts are
like that and others aren’t. In
particular, the UN concept of
genocide is clearly not like that.
All it requires for an event to
count as genocide is that someone
should have acted intentionally to
exterminate \some
members of a particular ethnic group
in part because they were members of
that group. And that is clearly an
intention that someone can have even
if no one around them had yet come
up with the concept of genocide.
K.M. - At a lecture, you say,
“Another bad argument for refusing
to apply the word “genocide” to 1915
goes something like this: The UN
Convention on Genocide, which
defined the word precisely for the
first time, was adopted only in
1948. Treaties don’t apply
retroactively. So, the Convention,
along with the notion that it
defines, could not apply to the
events of 1915.” And then you go on
to argue that, “Whether the concept
of genocide applies to events that
preceded its introduction with the
entirely different question whether
the legal convention that codified
that concept applies to events that
preceded its adoption.”
Can you explain how it is possible
to separate a legal concept from the
convention where it appears?
P.B. - I can have a law
forbidding the use of automobiles in
a park. That doesn’t make the
concept of an “automobile” or a
“park” a legal concept. They are
ordinary concepts that appear in a
legal context as well as in other
contexts. Similarly, the UN
Convention defines a certain sort of
mass harming and attempts to forbid
and punish those who perpetrate it.
The concept itself is just that of a
mass harming satisfying certain
conditions. Those kinds of mass
harming could clearly have existed
prior to anyone talking about them
and attempting to formulate a law
governing them.
K.M. - Unlike the words
“automobile” or “park”, the term
“genocide” was not used before and,
coined by Lemkin, it was
incorporated in the UN convention as
a legal term. Some people might
argue that this would make the term
and the convention inseparable. Yes,
there were mass killings, one might
argue, but if the convention cannot
be applied retrospectively, how can
you apply the term coined for such a
convention retrospectively?
P.B. - Just because a concept
is introduced in the context of a
law doesn't make it a legal concept.
The concept "genocide" has a
definition: it is a certain kind of
killing (or harming, but I shall
ignore that) -- killing done with a
certain intention.
“Killing” is not a legal
concept -- it just means “causing to
die.” “Intention” is not a legal
concept -- it pertains to an actor's
state of mind. So, in what sense is
“genocide” a legal concept? Yes, it
can be put to a legal use, but so
can any concept. And, yes, if the
law in which it appears was passed
after a given event, then,
typically, that LAW does not apply
to the event in question. But that
doesn't mean that the CONCEPT
doesn't.
K.M. - Turkish historian
Halil Berktay, in an Interview I
conducted with him last October,
says, “In 1915 such a convention
(The UN Convention on Genocide) did
not exist, such legality did not
exist, and, furthermore, the human
experience and thinking that
ultimately went into that
convention, did not exist. I’m not
saying that there were no people at
the time who objected to ethnic
cleansing, I’m saying that a
comprehensive, universal, and global
circulation of an anti-genocidal
ethos did not exist and it was not
part and parcel of the atmosphere in
which statesmen, politicians,
warlords, including Unionist
warlords, functioned at that time.”
What do you think about this
methodological problem underlined by
Professor Berktay?
P.B. - There is no
methodological problem here that I
can see. Let’s say that his
observation is largely correct. The
question is what follows from it. It
doesn’t follow that what happened
wasn’t genocide, according to the
definition later formulated, just
like it doesn’t follow that the
creatures that lived on Earth 65
million years ago weren’t dinosaurs
because that concept hadn’t yet been
formulated then. It also doesn’t
follow that what happened in 1915
wasn’t evil.
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